Understanding a CIN 3 Polyp Diagnosis: My Recent Journey
At 52 years old, I underwent a Pap smear in January 2024, during which a polyp was identified. Unfortunately, this finding wasn't logged, nor was a necessary referral made as promised. I returned in June for a follow-up, only to discover that no documentation existed regarding my situation. After some persistence, a nurse practitioner performed an internal examination, confirming the presence of the polyp. I have since been referred to a gynecologist. Recently, I consulted with a doctor about the status of this referral. During that visit, she took a biopsy of the polyp, revealing the presence of CIN 3 cells. Just the day before yesterday, I received a call informing me of the results, where terms such as "invasive cervical cancer" were mentioned. Later, she texted me clarifying that while there may not be cervical cancer, further testing and immediate treatment are necessary. This news has left me feeling quite anxious, particularly because this issue could have been addressed much earlier had the initial findings been properly documented. I also recalled having a fragile polyp that was dislodged during an internal examination back in 2020. I’m currently not on any medications and generally maintain good health—I am active and haven't smoked in five years. Now, as I wait for the next steps in this process, I find it challenging to cope with the uncertainty. What further tests should I anticipate, and how urgent will the timeline for these be?
Answers (1)

8/26/2025, 2:32:56 AM
OpenHealth AI
I'm sorry to hear about the concerns you're experiencing regarding your recent diagnosis. Understanding the situation with your cervical health can indeed feel overwhelming, but I’m here to help clarify what's happening and what you can expect next.
Key Points:
- CIN 3 Diagnosis: CIN 3 (Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia grade 3) indicates a high degree of abnormal cell changes in the cervix that could lead to cancer if not treated.
- Next Steps and Urgency: Immediate follow-up and further testing will be necessary to assess whether the cells have transitioned to invasive cancer and to determine the appropriate treatment.
Explanation:
CIN 3 is a serious condition that requires careful monitoring and management, as it can progress to cervical cancer if untreated. The mention of "invasive cervical cancer" suggests that there may be concern about the severity of the changes in your cells. However, receiving clarification that no cancer has been definitively diagnosed yet is critical. Your gynecologist will likely recommend additional procedures to evaluate the situation fully.
Specific Next Steps:
-
Further Testing:
- Colposcopy: This is a procedure where a special magnifying lens is used to closely examine the cervix and any abnormal areas. A biopsy may also be taken during this procedure if needed.
- Staging: If CIN 3 is confirmed, staging tests may be conducted to determine if there are any invasive cancer signs.
-
Timeline:
- Most healthcare providers prioritize follow-ups for CIN 3 findings, often scheduling a colposcopy within a few weeks after the initial biopsy. Be proactive in scheduling your appointment and ask for clarification on when you can expect this to occur.
-
Coping with Anxiety:
- While waiting for information, consider engaging in calming practices such as mindfulness or gentle exercise, which can help manage anxiety. Staying connected with supportive friends or family can also be beneficial.
Stay Vigilant:
It's essential to attend all follow-up appointments and to voice any questions or concerns you have about your care. Keeping a record of your symptoms or feelings can help during discussions with your healthcare team.
Please know that you are not alone in this, and there are effective treatment options available. Don’t hesitate to reach out for further information or support as you navigate this process.
Related Questions
Why Isn't My Treatment Effective?
Approximately a year ago, I noticed a small lump on the side of my second toe, near the larger toe. Initially, it was minor and contained some fluid. I attempted to remove it by shaving it off, hoping it would disappear, but it reappeared. Despite the repeated shaving, it ultimately transformed into a persistent bump, which is no longer filled with fluid—just a hardened patch of skin. When I consulted my doctor, he was unsure of its nature, mentioning it felt too soft to be a wart and had not spread further. He prescribed a topical treatment, which I have been using consistently. While the bump has slightly reduced in size, it remains present. Perhaps I am being too impatient, but it seems the medication is not making a significant impact. He informed me that if the treatment proves ineffective, I would need to visit a dermatologist. Although I believe it could be helpful, I'd prefer to avoid that route as I find the bump bothersome. For context, I’m 18 years old, transitioning from female to male, and have not yet started hormone therapy. I stand around 5 feet tall and weigh approximately 190 pounds, which is a separate issue I'm actively addressing in my efforts to lose weight. Initially, I speculated a splinter could be the cause due to the strange sensation and my inability to extract it. This evening, I took matters into my own hands, cleaned the area, and carefully shaved the bump for the first time. Fortunately, the skin was intact, and there was no bleeding. Afterward, I re-applied the medication and covered it with a bandage, as I am eager for it to disappear without the need for a specialist's intervention.
Evaluating Mirtazapine and Citalopram Prescription for a Child with ARFID
Is it typical for a pediatric gastroenterologist and psychiatrist to prescribe mirtazapine and citalopram, albeit separately, for a 10-year-old boy diagnosed with Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder (ARFID) who maintains a healthy body weight? After conducting some investigation, we've found that these medications are primarily administered to adults and are not generally the first-line treatment options for children. At present, our son is enrolled in an intensive outpatient feeding program at a hospital, where the physicians initially suggested mirtazapine. However, we felt uneasy about him starting this medication, leading to the recommendation of citalopram next, with both being dosed at 20 mg. We firmly believe that therapeutic intervention is the most essential focus, and all efforts should be directed towards that. To date, we have not administered any medication to him. To give you a better understanding of his situation, he has a limited selection of foods he considers safe, which includes cheese pizza, toast with Philadelphia cream cheese, original-flavored Goldfish crackers, simple desserts, grilled cheese sandwiches, vanilla yogurt, and cheese strings. His primary meal consists of a blended combination of vegetables, chicken, and rice, which he refuses to eat unless it's pureed. He will not feed himself this meal and must be assisted by someone else. He shows resistance to trying new foods and becomes very upset, often crying, when presented with anything unfamiliar. For instance, if a yogurt flavor other than vanilla is offered, he will react with distress. We aspire to make informed decisions regarding his treatment and would greatly appreciate any insights or advice on this matter.
What Is This Discharge?
I’m a 29-year-old female, weighing 155 pounds, and I recently underwent a pap smear as well as tests for sexually transmitted infections. At present, I am not engaging in sexual activity, although I did masturbate a few nights ago, which is not something I do often. While showering this morning, I noticed something unusual while cleansing my vaginal area. I felt a small object and decided to examine it more closely. I’m curious to know what it might be and whether it warrants a visit to my healthcare provider. The object is roughly the size of a Q-tip tip, possibly a bit smaller, and I’m seeking insights on what this could be.
Mysterious Symptoms Unraveled
A 19-year-old woman recently shared her puzzling health struggles. This summer, she began a course of strong antibiotics to treat recurrent vaginal infections and UTIs linked to sexual activity. Unfortunately, this led to a diagnosis of Mycoplasma hominis, for which she was prescribed two weeks of oral metronidazole and doxycycline. Initially, she experienced some relief shortly after starting the treatment; however, about a week into it, she began to notice discomfort on the sides of her lower abdomen. This discomfort soon escalated, radiating down to her thighs and ultimately affecting various parts of her body, even extending to her ears. The nature of her pain has evolved into a migratory burning sensation that shifts throughout her body. Despite undergoing extensive testing, including blood work and stool analysis, all results returned normal. Furthermore, she has tested negative for all tick-borne diseases. She finds herself at a standstill, struggling to understand the cause of her distressing symptoms.
Understanding Your Doctor's Concern Over Normal Lab Results
Greetings, fellow internet enthusiasts! I find myself in a bit of a quandary regarding my lab results, and after some searching, I landed on this forum for insights. Let me provide some context: I'm a 20-year-old woman, 5 feet 5 inches tall, weighing 112 pounds. I do not engage in smoking or drinking and don’t take any medications, overall leading a healthy life. The only medical issue I've been diagnosed with is anemia. Throughout my life, I've had annual physical exams starting from the age of 13, which included routine blood tests. Recently, about six months ago, I faced significant fatigue, paleness, and weakness that made daily activities challenging, prompting a visit to my doctor. Upon testing, I discovered that I was severely anemic with a hemoglobin level of 9.3. In light of this, we began iron supplementation because I was quite anxious about receiving intravenous iron, and since then I've been having my blood checked monthly to monitor my progress. Initially, the improvement was slow, but my latest hemoglobin reading is now at 12.2. This morning, I had more blood drawn, and I noticed on my chart that all results fell within the normal limits of the complete blood count (CBC). However, later today my physician reached out, inquiring about my overall well-being and whether I was experiencing any symptoms such as allergies or illness. Lately, I’ve been feeling nauseous, although to clarify, I am not pregnant and have never engaged in sexual activity. Otherwise, I feel relatively well, albeit a bit fatigued. My doctor mentioned that she wishes to retest in a fortnight because my basophils, which have typically been below 0.03, have now increased to 0.08 today. While I understand this is an increase, it remains within the normal range, and the number itself is quite low. This raises the question: why is there a need for a retest? Is there anything particularly critical about basophils? Furthermore, while reviewing other trends, I observed that my platelet count is nearing the high end of normal, yet still falls within acceptable limits. Can anyone shed some light on why my doctor deemed it necessary to contact me regarding a lab result that appears normal?